An economy with a consistently negative inflation rate is best described as experiencing:
Options are :
- deflation.
(Correct)
- disinflation.
- hyperinflation.
Answer :deflation.
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 11
A new technology that reduces employee illness will most likely decrease
Options are :
- demand-pull inflation.
- cost-push inflation.
(Correct)
- cost-pull inflation.
Answer :cost-push inflation.
The relationship between savings (S), investment (I), government spending (G), government tax revenue (T), exports (X), and imports (M) is:
Options are :
- (G - T) = (S - I) + (X - M).
- (S - I) = (G - T) + (X - M).
(Correct)
- (X - M) = (S - I) + (G - T).
Answer :(S - I) = (G - T) + (X - M).
_________ are the goods for which the demand is inversely related to consumer?s income.
Options are :
- Inferior Goods
(Correct)
- Normal Goods
- Superior Goods
- Substitute goods
Answer :Inferior Goods
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 3
If both the supply and the demand for a good increase, the market price will
Options are :
- Rise only in the case of an inelastic supply function.
- Fall only in the case of an inelastic supply function.
- Not be predictable with only these facts.
(Correct)
- Rise only in the case of an inelastic demand function.
Answer :Not be predictable with only these facts.
The country of Zurkistan is experiencing both high interest rates and high inflation. The government passes laws that reduce government spending and increase taxes. It takes many months before interest rates fall and inflation is reduced. This is an example of:
Options are :
- action lag and automatic stabilizers.
- recognition lag in discretionary fiscal policy.
- impact lag in discretionary fiscal policy.
(Correct)
Answer :impact lag in discretionary fiscal policy.
Which of the following is true about deflation?
Options are :
- It motivates consumers to borrow money.
- It motivates businesses to make investments.
- It results in very low interest rates.
(Correct)
- It results in economic expansion.
Answer :It results in very low interest rates.
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 2
A supply curve illustrates the relationship between
Options are :
- Price and quantity supplied.
(Correct)
- Price and consumer tastes.
- Price and quantity demanded.
- Supply and demand
Answer :Price and quantity supplied.
As a business owner you have determined that the demand for your product is inelastic. Based upon this assessment you understand that
Options are :
- Increasing the price of your product will increase total revenue.
(Correct)
- Decreasing the price of your product will increase total revenue.
- Increasing the price of your product will have no effect on total revenue.
- Increasing the price of your product will increase competition
Answer :Increasing the price of your product will increase total revenue.
If the price elasticity of demand for a good is 4.0, then a 10% increase in price would result in a:
Options are :
- 4% decrease in the quantity demanded.
- 10% decrease in the quantity demanded.
- 40% decrease in the quantity demanded.
(Correct)
Answer :40% decrease in the quantity demanded.
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 10
In any competitive market, an equal increase in both demand and supply can be expected to always
Options are :
- Increase both price and market-clearing quantity.
- Decrease both price and market-clearing quantity.
- Increase market-clearing quantity.
(Correct)
- Increase price.
Answer :Increase market-clearing quantity.
Which of the following will cause a shift in the supply curve of a product?
Options are :
- Changes in the price of the product.
- Changes in production taxes.
(Correct)
- Changes in consumer tastes.
- Changes in the number of buyers in the market
Answer :Changes in production taxes.
In a competitive market for labor in which demand is stable, if workers try to increase their wage
Options are :
- Employment must fall.
(Correct)
- Government must set a maximum wage below the equilibrium wage.
- Firms in the industry must become smaller.
- Product supply must decrease.
Answer :Employment must fall.
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 13
Which of the following factors affects the market demand?
I) Price of the commodity
II) Income of the consumers
III) Expectations of consumers regarding availability of goods
IV) Composition of population
Options are :
- Only I
- Only I,III
- Only II,IV
- all of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
(Correct)
Answer :all of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(I)The demand for a good increases with the increase in the income of its buyer.
(II)If the goods X and Y are substitutes, a rise in price of X will result in a right ward shift in demand curve of Y.
(III) A budget set is a collection of such bundles of goods that give same satisfaction.
Options are :
- Only I
- Only II
(Correct)
- Only III
- all of the above viz. I,II,III
Answer :Only II
Which one of the following would cause the demand curve for a commodity to shift to the left?
Options are :
- A rise in the price of a substitute product.
- A rise in average household income.
- A rise in the price of a complementary commodity.
(Correct)
- A rise in the population.
Answer :A rise in the price of a complementary commodity.
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 14
X and Y are substitute products. If the price of product Y increases, the immediate impact on product X is
Options are :
- Price will increase.
- Quantity demanded will increase.
(Correct)
- Quantity supplied will increase.
- Price, quantity demanded, and supply will increase.
Answer :Quantity demanded will increase.
A Banker makes following comments about the law of supply. Statement 1: Law of supply represents the producer?s willingness to supply a commodity with respect to change in its substitute?s price, keeping all other factors constant. Statement 2: Law of supply represents the producer?s willingness to supply a commodity with respect to change in its own price, keeping all other factors constant. Which statement provides the most reasonable explanation of the law of supply?
Options are :
- Statement 1.
- Statement 2.
(Correct)
- Neither.
- Both.
Answer :Statement 2.
The slope of a demand curve is most often:
Options are :
- Zero.
- Negative.
(Correct)
- Positive.
- None of the above
Answer :Negative.
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 11
If a group of consumers decide to boycott a particular product, the expected result would be
Options are :
- An increase in the product price to make up lost revenue.
- A decrease in the demand for the product.
(Correct)
- An increase in product supply because of increased availability.
- That demand for the product would become completely inelastic.
Answer :A decrease in the demand for the product.
An analyst lists the following changes for a product.
? The cost of production has increased by 10%.
? The price of a substitute has increased by 10%.
? The income of consumers has increased by 5%.
What will be the combined impact on the demand and supply curves?
Options are :
- The demand curve will shift to the right showing a decrease in demand and the supply curve will shift to the left showing a decrease in the supply.
- The demand curve will shift to the right showing an increase in demand and the supply curve will shift to the left showing a decrease in supply.
(Correct)
- The demand curve will shift to the right showing an increase in demand and the supply curve will shift to the right showing an increase in supply.
- No effect.
Answer :The demand curve will shift to the right showing an increase in demand and the supply curve will shift to the left showing a decrease in supply.
Which of the following is not likely to affect the supply of a particular good?
Options are :
- Changes in government subsidies.
- Changes in technology.
- Changes in consumer income.
(Correct)
- Changes in production costs.
Answer :Changes in consumer income.
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 11
In microeconomics, the distinguishing characteristic of the long run on the supply side is that
Options are :
- Only supply factors determine price and output.
- Only demand factors determine price and output.
- Firms are not allowed to enter or exit the industry.
- All inputs are variable
(Correct)
Answer :All inputs are variable
During the recessionary phase of a business cycle
Options are :
- The purchasing power of money is likely to decline rapidly.
- The natural rate of unemployment will increase dramatically.
- Potential national income will exceed actual national income.
(Correct)
- Actual national income will exceed potential national income.
Answer :Potential national income will exceed actual national income.
Which one of the following would not be included in the calculation of the gross domestic product (GDP)?
Options are :
- Purchase of a new home.
- An automotive worker?s wages.
- A doctor?s fee.
- Purchase of common stock
(Correct)
Answer :Purchase of common stock
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 17
Maruti, Tata, Fiat, Ford and GM are only a few auto producers in the Indian market. Identify the form of market in which they sell their products?
Options are :
- Oligopoly
(Correct)
- Monopoly
- Perfect Competition
- Saturated Market
Answer :Oligopoly
Which of the following may provide a leading indicator of a future increase in gross domestic product?
Options are :
- A reduction in the money supply.
- A decrease in the issuance of building permits.
- An increase in the timeliness of delivery by vendors.
- An increase in the average hours worked per week of production workers.
(Correct)
Answer :An increase in the average hours worked per week of production workers.
A period of rising inflation
Options are :
- Increases the price level, which benefits those who are entitled to receive specific amounts of money.
- Enhances the positive relationship between the price level and the purchasing power of money.
- Will not be affected by contracts that include the indexing of payments.
- Increases the price level, which is negatively related to the purchasing power of money
(Correct)
Answer :Increases the price level, which is negatively related to the purchasing power of money
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 6
Suppose the economy is operating far below its full employment level. Now the government increases its spending without an increase in taxes. Given time, this will most likely result in:
Options are :
- output rising by a multiple of the increase in government spending and in?ation may increase a little
(Correct)
- a fall in output due to the initial position being one with idle resources
- no change in output but an increase in in?ation
- a lowering of the rate of in?ation
Answer :output rising by a multiple of the increase in government spending and in?ation may increase a little
National income of a country is same as
Options are :
- Gross National Product at market price. (
- Net National product at factor cost.
(Correct)
- Gross National Product at factor cost.
- Net National Product at market price.
Answer :Net National product at factor cost.
The most important requirement when planning a learning programme or event for a group of people is:
Options are :
- to take account of the principles of learning as explained by learning theory
(Correct)
- to understand the individual learning needs of participants
- to understand the learning styles of participants
- to consider how an appropriate blend of training techniques can be deployed
Answer :to take account of the principles of learning as explained by learning theory
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 3
Providing training development opportunities, and career information programs, are all part of the ------------------?s role in career development.
Options are :
- Individual
- Manager
- Supervisor
(Correct)
- Company
Answer :Supervisor
A learning organization is one in which:
Options are :
- extensive and well-planned training programmes are in place
- continuous improvement is achieved by providing a healthy environment for learning
(Correct)
- continuous attention is paid to the satisfaction of individual learning needs
- relevant knowledge is captured and disseminated systematically
Answer :continuous improvement is achieved by providing a healthy environment for learning
Which of the following is a process of attracting individuals on a timely basis, in sufficient numbers, and with appropriate qualifications, to apply for jobs with an organization?
Options are :
- Selection
- Recruitment
(Correct)
- Staffing
- Enrolment
Answer :Recruitment
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 12
The notion of the learning organization:
Options are :
- has been implemented effectively in many companies
- is fundamentally aspirational
- suggests that organizations have a life of their own and are in themselves capable of learning
(Correct)
- provides an essential guide to the formulation and implementation of learning and development strategies
Answer :suggests that organizations have a life of their own and are in themselves capable of learning
The focus of Human Resource Management revolves around"
Options are :
- Machine
- Motivation
- Money
- Men
(Correct)
Answer :Men
Demand for human resources and management is created by
Options are :
- Expansion of industry
(Correct)
- Shortage of labor
- Abundance of capital
- Consumer preferences
Answer :Expansion of industry
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 12
In term loans, the economic/financial feasibility of a project involves analysis of which of the following aspects?
Options are :
- Return on Investment
- Break-even Analysis
- Sensitivity Analysis
- all of the above
(Correct)
Answer :all of the above
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 10
RBI has issued guidelines on fair practices code for lending. These guidelines pertain to:
Options are :
- application for loans and their processing.
- loan appraisal and terms/conditions.
- post disbursement supervision.
- all of the above
(Correct)
Answer :all of the above
Under Turnover Method of working capital assessment, it is assumed that the enterprise needs ______ of its annual turnover as gross working capital, out of which _____ will be provided by the bank and _____ will be brought in as margin by the enterprise.
Options are :
- 50%,25%,25%
- 25%,20%,5%
(Correct)
- 30%,20%,10%
- 10%,5%,5%
Answer :25%,20%,5%
Banks enter into a compromise with borrowers in case of default, because:
Options are :
- Recovery through legal action is time-consuming
- Adequate security is not available
- Realization or security may be difficult
- All the above
(Correct)
Answer :All the above
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 1
Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. working capital finance to information technology and software industry?
I) Banks may consider sanction of working capital limits based on the track record of the promoters.
II) Banks can stipulate reasonable amount as promoters? contribution towards margin.
III) Banks may obtain collateral security wherever available
IV) The banks could obtain quarterly statements of cash flows to monitor the operations.
Options are :
- Only I
- Only III
- Only I,II and III
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
(Correct)
Answer :All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
The aim of a rehabilitation programme is:
Options are :
- To make the operations of the enterprise viable again
(Correct)
- To help in employment generation
- To comply with R B I guidelines
- To increase bank's advances
Answer :To make the operations of the enterprise viable again
Which of the following is not an approach for assessment of credit risks, laid down under Basel 2 Accord? .
Options are :
- Standardized approach
- Foundation Internal Rating Based (I R B) approach
- Advanced Internal Rating Based (I R B) approach
- Simplified Internal Rating Based (I R B) approach
(Correct)
Answer :Simplified Internal Rating Based (I R B) approach
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 6
Which of the following are some of the safeguards that RBI has advised to banks w.r.t. co-acceptance of bills?
I) While sanctioning co-acceptance limits to their customers, the need therefore should be ascertained, and such limits should be extended only to those customers who enjoy other limits with the bank.
II) Only genuine trade bills should be co-accepted and the banks should be ensure that the goods covered by bills co-accepted are actually received in the stock accounts of the borrowers.
III) Co-acceptances in respect of bills for ?. 50,000/- and above should be signed by two officials jointly, deviation being allowed only in exceptional cases, e.g. non-availability of two officials at a branch.
IV) The valuation of the goods as mentioned in the accompanying invoice should be verified to see that there should not be over-valuation of stocks more than 10% of the invoice value.
Options are :
- Only I
- Only I,II
(Correct)
- Only I,II and IV
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
Answer :Only I,II
For appraisal, the lender will normally depend on which of the following information -
I) The background, credit history, market reports of the borrower.
II) The financial track record of the borrower as representing by the financial statements
III)Techno-economic feasibility report of the activity of proposal
IV) The influence of borrower in regional politics.
Options are :
- Only I,II
- Only I,III
- Only I,II,III
(Correct)
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
Answer :Only I,II,III
Select the INCORRECT sentence:
1. Term loans are provided for acquiring the fixed assets.
2. Working capital term loans are provided for sustaining current assets.
3. Term loan is payable as per demand.
4. Working capital term loans are payable as per repayment schedule
Options are :
- both 1 and 2
- both 2 and 3
- both 3 and 4
(Correct)
- both 1 and 4
Answer :both 3 and 4
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 15
While issuing guarantees on behalf of customers, which of the following safeguards should be observed by banks?
I) At the time of issuing financial guarantees, banks should be satisfied that the customer would be in a position to reimburse the bank in case the bank is required to make payment under the guarantee.
II) In the case of performance guarantee, banks should exercise due caution and have sufficient experience with the customer to satisfy themselves that the customer has the necessary experience, capacity and means to perform the obligations under the contract, and is likely to commit any default.
III) Banks can give guarantee if borrower has some relation with any political leader or administrative Officer.
IV) Banks should, normally, refrain from issuing guarantees on behalf of customers who do not enjoy credit facilities with them.
Options are :
- Only I
- Only III
- Only I,II and IV
(Correct)
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
Answer :Only I,II and IV
Return on equity using the traditional DuPont formula equals:
Options are :
- (net profit margin) (interest component) (solvency ratio).
- (net profit margin) (total asset turnover) (tax retention rate).
- (net profit margin) (total asset turnover) (financial leverage multiplier).
(Correct)
Answer :(net profit margin) (total asset turnover) (financial leverage multiplier).
Which of the following infrastructure sectors qualify under ?infrastructure lending??
I) Electricity
II) Transport
III) Energy
IV) water and Sanitation
Options are :
- Only I
- Only II,III,IV
(Correct)
- Only II
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
Answer :Only II,III,IV
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 11
For assessing the LC requirement of an enterprise, which of the following points should be remembered by a banker?
I) Average Amount of Each LC is dependent on the monthly consumption of goods and the economic order quantity
II) The number of LCs to be opened in a year can be calculated by dividing annual consumption by EOQ
III) The time taken for one LC to remain in force depends upon the lead time, the transit time and the usance available to purchaser from the date of receipt of goods.
Options are :
- Only I
- Only I,II
(Correct)
- Only II
- All of the above viz. I,II,III
Answer :Only I,II
Which of the following is a type of financing done by banks to the infrastructure sector?
I) Take-out Financing
II) Inter-institutional Guarantees
III) Financing Promoter?s Equity
IV) Collaboration Financing
Options are :
- Only I
- Only I,II,III
(Correct)
- Only II
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
Answer :Only I,II,III
Seasonal working capital is
Options are :
- Permanently required
- Fluctuating in nature
- Required to meet seasonal needs of the organization
(Correct)
- None of the above
Answer :Required to meet seasonal needs of the organization
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 10
Which of the following is not a micro level action for mitigation of credit risk?
Options are :
- Improving the sanctioning and delivering process
- Obtention of collateral security
- Monitoring and review of individual proposals/categories of proposals
- Periodical reviews of the exposure limits for business or industry segment
(Correct)
Answer :Periodical reviews of the exposure limits for business or industry segment
Shortage of working capital may result in
Options are :
- Poor creditworthiness
(Correct)
- Higher trade discount
- Higher cash discount
- None of the above
Answer :Poor creditworthiness
The margin of safety is provided to
Options are :
- Cover possible variations in estimation
- Have safety in the management of working capital
- Ensure safety in the estimation of working capital
- Both B C
(Correct)
Answer :Both B C
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 2
?At the time of financing projects banks generally adopt which one of the following methodologies for determining the level of promoters? equity ?
I) Promoters bring their entire contribution upfront before the bank starts disbursing its commitment.
II)Promoters bring certain percentage of their equity (40% - 50%) upfront and balance is bought in stages.
III)Promoters agree, ab initio, that they will bring in equity funds proportionately as the banks finance the debt portion.
Options are :
- Only I
- Only I,II
- Only III
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
(Correct)
Answer :All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
Which of the following is not a macro level action for mitigation of credit risk?
Options are :
- Periodically reviews of the exposure norms for single and group borrowers
- Improving appraisal standards of credit proposals
(Correct)
- Frequent reviews of norms and fixing internal limits for aggregate commitments to specific sectors of the industry or business
- Periodic review of total credit portfolio based on quality parameters
Answer :Improving appraisal standards of credit proposals
Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t. syndication of loans?
I) The term ?Syndication? is normally used for sharing a long-term loan to a borrower by two or more banks.
II) This is a way of sharing the risk, associated with lending to that borrower, by the banks and is generally used for large loans.
III) The borrower, intending to avail the desired amount of loan, gives a mandate to one bank (called Lead bank) to arrange for sanctions for the total amount, on its behalf.
IV) The lead bank does the liaison work and common terms and conditions of sanction may be agreed in a meeting of participating banks, arranged by the lead bank.
Options are :
- Only I
- Only I,II
- Only III
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
(Correct)
Answer :All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 6
Which of the following statements is/are correct w.r.t. factoring ?
I) This is a method of financing the receivables of a business enterprise.
II) Banks are permitted to do this business through subsidiaries and also departmentally.
III) Under factoring, the factor not only purchases the book debts/receivables of the client, but may also control the credit given to the buyers and administer the sales ledger.
IV) The purchase of book debts/receivables can be done only without recourse to the clients.
Options are :
- Only I
- Only I,II,III
(Correct)
- Only II
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
Answer :Only I,II,III
A decreasing trend of Debtors Velocity Ratio implies :
Options are :
- More credit being extended
- Less likelihood of bad and doubtful debts
- Poor debt collection
(Correct)
- More demand for the product of the seller
- none of the above
Answer :Poor debt collection
For calculating Debt Service Coverage Ratio (DSCR), the numerator will be :
Options are :
- Profit after tax plus depreciation plus interest on term borrowings
(Correct)
- Profit before tax plus depreciation plus interest on term borrowings
- Profit after tax plus interest on term borrowings
- Profit before tax plus interest on term ?borrowings
Answer :Profit after tax plus depreciation plus interest on term borrowings
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 7
Operating cycle in an industrial concern means
Options are :
- Conversion of raw materials into semi-finished goods
- Conversion of raw materials into finished goods sundry debtors and back into cash
(Correct)
- Conversion of raw materials into finished goods
- Conversion of sundry debtors into cash
- none
Answer :Conversion of raw materials into finished goods sundry debtors and back into cash
In the second method of lending under Tondon Committee:
Options are :
- The bank should finance 75% of the working capital gap
- The bank should finance 50% of the current assets
- The borrower should contribute 25% of total current assets and total current liabilities including bank borrowing should not exceed 75% of current assets
(Correct)
- Lower of (a) (b)
- none
Answer :The borrower should contribute 25% of total current assets and total current liabilities including bank borrowing should not exceed 75% of current assets
Crop loan granted for long duration crop becomes NPA if :
Options are :
- Interest remains unpaid after it has become overdue for two years
- Interest and /or instalment remains unpaid after it has become overdue for two crop seasons
- Interest and/or installment of principal remain unpaid after it has become overdue for two half years
- Interest and/or installment of principal remains unpaid after it has become overdue for two crop seasons but for a period not exceeding two half years
- Interest or installment is overdue for one crop season.
(Correct)
Answer :Interest or installment is overdue for one crop season.
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 4
Out of order account means an account where:
Options are :
- The balance is continuously more than the sanctioned limit or drawing power
- Whereas on the date of Balance Sheet, there is no credit in the account continuously for 90 days or credit is less than interest debited
- Where a stock statement has not been received for 3 months or more.
- Any of these (e) only (a) or (b)
(Correct)
Answer :Any of these (e) only (a) or (b)
In an NPA account, interest or any other charge will be recognized as income as per which of the following:
Options are :
- On accrual basis
- When borrower gives a firm commitment to regularize the account
- When it is actually realized
(Correct)
- (a) or (c) as per policy of the bank
- None of these
Answer :When it is actually realized
How is the provision on standard assets treated?
Options are :
- It is deducted from Gross NPA
- It is deducted from Gross advances
- Shown as 'Contingent Provisions against Standard Assets' under 'Other Liabilities and Provisions - Others' in Schedule 5 of the balance sheet.
(Correct)
- Any of these but accounting practice should be followed consistently.
- None of these
Answer :Shown as 'Contingent Provisions against Standard Assets' under 'Other Liabilities and Provisions - Others' in Schedule 5 of the balance sheet.
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 7
An advance has been made by 3 banks under a consortium arrangement. The account becomes NPA with one of the banks, What should be done by other banks?
Options are :
- Classify the account as NPA
- classify the account as NPA but provision not to be made
- The account will be classified as per record of recovery of each bank
(Correct)
- Classify the account as NPA if the same is NPA with the leader bank
- None of these
Answer :The account will be classified as per record of recovery of each bank
Choose incorrect statement(s) regarding an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal against the order of the Debt Recovery Tribunal:
Options are :
- When a Debt Recovery Tribunal has passed an order with the consent of the parties, no appeal lies with the Appellate Tribunal.
- An appeal to the Appellate Tribunal is required to be preferred within 90 days from the date of receipt of the order of the Debt Recovery Tribunal by the aggrieved party.
(Correct)
- When the aggrieved party is required to pay the amount to the bank/financial institution, the Appellate Tribunal will entertain an appeal only when 75% of the amount ordered to be paid by the Debt Recovery Tribunal is deposited by him which can be reduced to 0% by DRAT.
- All of these
- only (b) and (c)
Answer :An appeal to the Appellate Tribunal is required to be preferred within 90 days from the date of receipt of the order of the Debt Recovery Tribunal by the aggrieved party.
As per the decision of Supreme Court in the case of_______ , the bank can take action simultaneously under Sarfaesi and also file case with DRT or normal court for recovery.
Options are :
- Union of India versus Mardia Chemicals Ltd
- Mardia Chemicals Ltd versus Union of India Others
- Transcore Ltd versus Union of India others
(Correct)
- None of these
Answer :Transcore Ltd versus Union of India others
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 7
Credit Exposure ceiling for borrowers is linked to:
Options are :
- Paid up capital of the bank
- The net worth of bank
- Capital fund of the bank
(Correct)
- None of these
Answer :Capital fund of the bank
Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t. Corporate Debt Restructuring (CDR)? I)This mechanism is for restructuring the corporate debts of viable entities facing problems, outside the purview of BIFR, DRT and other legal proceedings. II) Borrowers enjoying credit facilities from more than one bank/Financial Institution (FI), with total outstanding (fund-based and non-fund based) exposure of ?. 20 crore or above are eligible. III) CDR framework has a four tier structure: a. CDR Standing Forum and its Core Group, b. CDR Empowered Group c.CDR Cell d.CDR review Group
Options are :
- Only I
(Correct)
- Only I,II,III
- Only I,III, IV
- All of the above viz. I,II,III,IV
Answer :Only I
Banks cannot grant advance against their own shares as per provisions of:
Options are :
- Section 20 (1) of RBI Act
- Section 19(2) of the Banking Regulation Act
- RBI guidelines
- Section 20 (1) of the Banking Regulation Act
(Correct)
- None of these
Answer :Section 20 (1) of the Banking Regulation Act
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 12
Which of the following is correct regarding the loan to directors of other banks or relatives of directors of own bank or directors of other banks?
Options are :
- In all cases, the loan can be sanctioned by appropriate authority but it should be reported toBoard of Directors of sanctioning Bank
- In all cases, the loancannot be granted without sanction of the Board of Directors of lending Bank.
- A loan of Rs 25 Lakh and above can be granted only after obtaining the sanction of the Board ofDirectors of the lending bank
- Loan of less than Rs 25 lakh can be sanctioned by appropriate authority but it should be reported toBoard of Directors of sanctioning Bank
- Both (c) and (d) Miscellaneous Instructions
(Correct)
Answer :Both (c) and (d) Miscellaneous Instructions
Which of the following commodities are presently covered under stipulations of Selective Credit Control?
Options are :
- food grains i.e. cereals and pulses
- major oil seeds and oils thereof
- raw cotton and kapas
- A buffer stock of sugar with sugar mills, unreleased stocks of sugar with sugar mills
(Correct)
- None of these
Answer :A buffer stock of sugar with sugar mills, unreleased stocks of sugar with sugar mills
At the time of granting fresh facilities, which type of declarations is to be obtained from the borrowers?
Options are :
- That they are not availing credit facilities from another bank
- That they are not availing of working capital facilities from another bank
- Details about the credit facilities already enjoyed by them from other banks
(Correct)
- None of these
Answer :Details about the credit facilities already enjoyed by them from other banks
Which of the following statements about the relationship between interest rates and the demand for and supply of money is most accurate? Interest rates affect:
Options are :
- The supply of money only.
- The demand for money only.
(Correct)
- Both the demand for and supply of money.
- neither the demand for and supply of money.
Answer :The demand for money only.
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 10
An increase in price will result in an increase in total revenue if
Options are :
- Percentage change in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price
- Percentage change in quantity demanded is less than the percentage change in price
(Correct)
- Percentage change in quantity demanded is equal to the percentage change in price
- None
Answer :Percentage change in quantity demanded is less than the percentage change in price
A distinction between Giffen goods and Veblen goods is that:
Options are :
- the substitution effect is positive for a Veblen good but negative for a Giffen good.
- demand curves for Giffen goods slope upward, while demand curves for Veblen goods slope downward
- Giffen goods are inferior goods, while Veblen goods are not inferior goods.
(Correct)
Answer :Giffen goods are inferior goods, while Veblen goods are not inferior goods.
An increase in price will result in no change in total revenue if
Options are :
- Percentage change in price equals the percentage change in demand
(Correct)
- Percentage change in demand is more than the percentage change in price
- Percentage change in price is less than percentage change in demand
- Change in price is more than a change in demand in absolute terms
Answer :Percentage change in price equals the percentage change in demand
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 19
Laissez-faire economy is:
Options are :
- The extreme case of a market Economy
(Correct)
- The extreme case of a Command Economy
- The extreme case of a Mixed Economy
- None of these
Answer :The extreme case of a market Economy
Market demand curve for a commodity is??????
Options are :
- Horizontal summation of the individual demand curve for the commodity
(Correct)
- Summation of the individual demand curve for 3 years
- Demand curve of complementary goods
- Demand curve of supplementary goods
Answer :Horizontal summation of the individual demand curve for the commodity
The equilibrium state is achieved at ???????
Options are :
- The peak point of the supply curve
- The bottom point of the demand curve
- The inflation point of the demand curve
- The intersection of demand and supply curve
(Correct)
Answer :The intersection of demand and supply curve
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 1
According to the law of supply ???..
Options are :
- Higher the price higher the production of the product;
- Higher the price lower the cost of production ;
- Lower the price lower the demand for the product
- Higher the price higher the quantity the seller is prepared to supply in the market
(Correct)
Answer :Higher the price higher the quantity the seller is prepared to supply in the market
In which of the following situations would there be inelastic demand?
Options are :
- A 5% price increase results in 3% decrease in the quantity demanded.
(Correct)
- A 4% price increase results in a 6% decrease in the quantity demanded.
- A 4% price increase results in a 4% decrease in the quantity demanded.
- A 3% price decrease results in 5% increase in the quantity demanded.
Answer :A 5% price increase results in 3% decrease in the quantity demanded.
A period of rising inflation
Options are :
- Increases the price level, which benefits those who are entitled to receive specific amounts of money.
- Enhances the positive relationship between the price level and the purchasing power of money.
- Will not be affected by contracts that include the indexing of payments.
- Increases the price level, which is negatively related to the purchasing power of money.
(Correct)
Answer :Increases the price level, which is negatively related to the purchasing power of money.
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 12
Which of the following statements is true?
Options are :
- Investments that payback in five years or less should always be accepted
- Investments that have a positive net present value should always be accepted
- Investments that have a positive net present value should be considered for acceptance
(Correct)
- Investments that yield a positive internal rate of return should be accepted
Answer :Investments that have a positive net present value should be considered for acceptance
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 12
Which of the following statements concerning the NPV is not true?
Options are :
- The NPV technique takes account of the time value of money
- The NPV of a project is the sum of all the discounted cash flows associated with a project
- The NPV technique takes account of all the cash flows associated with a project
- If two competing projects are being considered, the one expected to yield the lowest NPV should be selected.
(Correct)
Answer :If two competing projects are being considered, the one expected to yield the lowest NPV should be selected.
The internal rate of return (IRR) is the
Options are :
- Hurdle rate.
- Rate of interest for which the net present value is greater than 1.0.
- Rate of interest for which the net present value is equal to zero.
(Correct)
- Rate of return generated from the operational cash flows.
Answer :Rate of interest for which the net present value is equal to zero.
Priya purchased a bond with a face value of ? 1000 and Coupon of 8% and maturity of 4years. If YTM is reduced by 2%, the change in the price of the bond would be......
Options are :
- 63.9
- 69.3
(Correct)
- 36.9
- 39.6
Answer :69.3
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 2
SCU and QXA are two stocks in the same industry. The variance of returns for each stock is 0.3025 and the returns are perfectly positively correlated. The covariance between the returns is closest to:
Options are :
- 0.3025.
(Correct)
- 0.2525.
- 0.5500.
- 0.1000.
Answer :0.3025.
When considering two mutually exclusive capital budgeting projects with conflicting rankings (one has the higher positive NPV, the other has a higher IRR), the most appropriate conclusion is to choose the project with the:
Options are :
- higher IRR.
- higher NPV.
(Correct)
- shorter payback.
Answer :higher NPV.
A quantitative technique used to make predictions or estimates of the value of a dependent variable from given values of an independent variable(s) is
Options are :
- Linear programming.
- Regression analysis.
(Correct)
- Trend analysis.
- Queuing theory.
Answer :Regression analysis.
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 7
If the coefficient of correlation between two variables is zero, how might a scatter diagram of these variables appear?
Options are :
- Random points.
(Correct)
- A least squares line that slopes up to the right.
- A least squares line that slopes down to the right.
- Under this condition, a scatter diagram could not be plotted on a graph
Answer :Random points.
An organization is using capital budgeting techniques to compare two independent projects. It could accept one, both, or neither of the projects. Which of the following statements is true about the use of net present value (NPV) and internal rate of return (IRR) methods for evaluating these two projects?
Options are :
- NPV and IRR criteria will always lead to the same accept or reject decision for two independent projects.
(Correct)
- If the first project?s IRR is higher than the organization?s cost or capital, the first project will be accepted but the second project will not.
- If the NPV criterion leads to accepting or rejecting the first project, one cannot predict whether the IRR criterion will lead to accepting or rejecting the first project.
- If the NPV criterion leads to accepting the first project, the IRR criterion will never lead to accepting the first project
Answer :NPV and IRR criteria will always lead to the same accept or reject decision for two independent projects.
A regression analysis has the goal of:
Options are :
- measuring how the properties of the variables regress towards each other.
- estimating how changes in independent variables affect a dependent variable.
(Correct)
- estimating how changes in dependent variable affect an independent variable.
- measuring the tendency of both independent and dependent variables to regress towards their respective means.
Answer :estimating how changes in independent variables affect a dependent variable.
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 11
If the correlation between two variables is -1.0, the scatter plot would appear along a:
Options are :
- a curved line running from southwest to northeast.
- straight line running from southwest to northeast.
- straight line running from northwest to southeast.
(Correct)
- a curved line centered in the scatter plot.
Answer :straight line running from northwest to southeast.
Which of the following statements about the normal probability distribution is most accurate?
Options are :
- Sixty-eight percent of the area under the normal curve falls between 0 and +1 standard deviations above the mean.
- The standardized normal distribution has a mean of zero and a standard deviation of 10.
- Five percent of the normal curve probability falls more than outside two standard deviations from the mean.
(Correct)
- The normal curve is asymmetrical about its mean.
Answer :Five percent of the normal curve probability falls more than outside two standard deviations from the mean.
The central limit theorem states that, for any distribution, as n gets larger, the sampling distribution:
Options are :
- becomes smaller.
- approaches the mean.
- becomes larger.
- approaches a normal distribution.
(Correct)
Answer :approaches a normal distribution.
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 13
Which of the following statements is least accurate regarding covariance?
Options are :
- Covariance can exceed one.
- A covariance of zero rules out any relationship.
(Correct)
- Covariance can only apply to two variables at a time.
- Covariance can be negative.
Answer :A covariance of zero rules out any relationship.
If X and Y are independent random variables:
Options are :
- the variables are perfectly correlated.
- The covariance between the two variables is equal to zero and the correlation between the two variables is equal to zero.
(Correct)
- the covariance between the two variables is equal to zero.
- the correlation between the two variables is equal to zero.
Answer :The covariance between the two variables is equal to zero and the correlation between the two variables is equal to zero.
A joint probability of A and B must always be:
Options are :
- less than or equal to the conditional probability of A given B.
(Correct)
- greater than or equal to than the probability of A or B.
- greater than or equal to the conditional probability of A given B.
- less than the probability of A and the probability of B.
Answer :less than or equal to the conditional probability of A given B.
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 2
Assume that an investment project?s assumed cash flows are not changed but the assumed weighted-average cost of capital is reduced. What impact would this have on the net present value (NPV) and the internal rate of return (IRR) of this project?
Options are :
- NPV would increase, and IRR would increase.
- NPV would decrease, and IRR would increase.
- NPV would not change, and IRR would not change.
- NPV would increase, and IRR would not change.
(Correct)
Answer :NPV would increase, and IRR would not change.
In maximization problem, optimal solution occurring at corner point yields the
Options are :
- mean values of z
- highest value of z
(Correct)
- lowest value of z
- mid values of z
Answer :highest value of z
Which of the following statements is most likely correct for a project costing $50,000 and
returning $14,000 per year for 5 years?
Options are :
- NPV = $36,274.
- NPV = $20,000.
- IRR = 1.4%.
- IRR is greater than 10%.
(Correct)
Answer :IRR is greater than 10%.
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 3
In Random Sampling, we pick up one, keep it away and then pick another from the remaining. This is called...
Options are :
- Sampling with replacement
- Simple random sampling
- Sampling without replacement
- None of the above
(Correct)
Answer :None of the above
The Bank should deal with the employee resistance by:
Options are :
- Co-opting the employees
- Communicating strategically about the potential benefits
- Conducting simultaneous training to familiarize the staff with the new software
- All of the above
(Correct)
Answer :All of the above
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 5
The amount of quality output for the number of input means
Options are :
- Productivity
(Correct)
- Production
- Sales increase
- Increase in profits
Answer :Productivity
The matching model of HRM:
Options are :
- links HRM with personnel management
- emphasizes that HRM systems should be integrated with organizational strategy
(Correct)
- suggests that HR policies should be matched with the interests of both management and employees
- focuses on the need to gain the commitment of employees
Answer :emphasizes that HRM systems should be integrated with organizational strategy
Human resource management helps improve
Options are :
- Production
- Productivity
(Correct)
- Profits
- Power
Answer :Productivity
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 2
A manager may delegate any of the following except:
Options are :
- Authority
- Responsibility
(Correct)
- Workload
- Attendance at meetings to represent the deptt.
Answer :Responsibility
How could this situation have been managed better?
Options are :
- By issuing project details and time frame mentioning punishments in case of delay
- By roping in the HR professionals to act as coordinator
- By recognizing that any change brings its own reactions and co-opting the managers even before Consultants moved in
- b c
(Correct)
Answer :b c
The most common criticism of HRM is that:
Options are :
- it is manipulative
- it is more concerned with business performance than people
(Correct)
- it treats people as mere factors of production
- it promises more than it delivers
Answer :it is more concerned with business performance than people
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 10
Which of the following comments about HRM is the most perceptive?
Options are :
- ?A wide and contradictory variety of regenerative initiatives have been introduced under the name of HRM and force-fed to a battered, bewildered and defensive workforce and a newly confident management.? (Keenoy and Anthony, 1992)
- ?The heralded outcomes (of HRM) are almost always unrealistically high.? (Mabeyet al, 1998)
- ?At the heart of the (HRM) concept is the complete identification of employees with the aims of the business ? employee involvement but on the company?s terms.? (Fowler, 1987)
- ?HRM is too important to be left to personnel managers.? (Guest, 1991)
(Correct)
Answer :?HRM is too important to be left to personnel managers.? (Guest, 1991)
Identify which one is an added specific goal of human resource management:
Options are :
- Retraining
(Correct)
- Learning
- Unlearning
- Separating
Answer :Retraining
The critical issue in this case is:
Options are :
- Attitudes of individuals
- Training of people
- Group behavior due to a sense of the unknown
(Correct)
- All the above
Answer :Group behavior due to a sense of the unknown
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 4
The purpose of HR policy is to:
Options are :
- provide guidelines on how things relating to people should be done
(Correct)
- provide the basis for HR strategy
- set out the procedures to be used in dealing with HR
- keep people informed about what the organization is doing about HRM
Answer :provide guidelines on how things relating to people should be done
The top management of ABC. Bank was in a triumphant mood after engaging XYZ Ltd, one of the top IT Companies as a consultant for a massive technology upgradation in the Bank. Their enthusiasm was short-lived, as the project did not progress well and the consultants were not able to deliver the desired results even after several months. In fact, the Consultants were of the view that it may never be possible to implement the project with 100% success as they seemed to be facing resistance from the employees at multi-levels. The employees at all levels seemed reluctant to cooperate. Their fear of Role erosion seemed palpable.
What does ?Role erosion? mean in this context?
Options are :
- The fear of the employee that he will be sent out
- Fear that the responsibility and the power will reduce
- Fear that he will no more be an indispensable
- a b
(Correct)
Answer :a b
Best practice strategic HRM:
Options are :
- means basing HR practices on those adopted successfully by other organizations
- is based on the fallacy that there is such a thing as best practice
(Correct)
- involves benchmarking what other organizations do
- means constantly seeking to improve HR performance
Answer :is based on the fallacy that there is such a thing as best practice
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 9
Expectancy theory focuses on the relationships between which three factors?
Options are :
- Needs, effort, and persistence
- Needs, performance, and inputs
- Inputs, performance, and outcomes
- Needs, performance, and outcomes
(Correct)
Answer :Needs, performance, and outcomes
Best fit strategic HRM:
Options are :
- is preferable to best practice
- involves matching HR strategies to the firm?s business strategy
(Correct)
- means ensuring that HR practices fit and support one another
- leads to an inflexible approach to HRM
Answer :involves matching HR strategies to the firm?s business strategy
Workers' compensation benefits fall into all of these major categories except:
Options are :
- Medical care
- Retirement benefits
(Correct)
- Disability income
- Death benefits
Answer :Retirement benefits
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 19
The most important aim of integrated HRM is to:
Options are :
- seek both vertical and horizontal fit
(Correct)
- bundle HR practices together
- ensure that HR strategy is aligned to the business strategy
- ensure that HR practices are mutually supporting
Answer :seek both vertical and horizontal fit
Managers can motivate people to avoid performing dysfunctional behaviors by using:
I. Extinction
II. Punishment
III. Negative reinforcement
Options are :
- I, II, III
- I and III
- II and III
- I and II
(Correct)
Answer :I and II
Intellectual capital is:
Options are :
- a component of knowledge management
- created by people working together in an organization
- composed of human, social and organizational capital
(Correct)
- an element of human capital
Answer :composed of human, social and organizational capital
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 10
Managers who meet designated goals are _______.
Options are :
- Assertive
- Efficient
- Effective
(Correct)
- Entitled
Answer :Effective
Deployment of which resource is difficult to master
Options are :
- Human
(Correct)
- Land
- Capital
- Natural
Answer :Human
Human capital management is:
Options are :
- Another term for human resource management
- Mainly concerned with measuring the impact of HR practices
- Mainly concerned with reporting on the use of human capital
- An approach to managing people that treats them as assets rather than costs
(Correct)
Answer :An approach to managing people that treats them as assets rather than costs
CAIIB 2020 Advanced Bank Management Mock Tests Set 11
Employee involvement requires extensive additional HRM activity in which of these areas?
Options are :
- Training
(Correct)
- Benefits
- Labour negotiation
- Marketing
Answer :Training
The human capital advantage is best achieved when:
Options are :
- An organization has more skilled people than its competitors
- An organization has people with unique talents that are not available to its competitors
(Correct)
- An organization has more effective recruitment and selection techniques than its competitors
- An organization has more committed people than its competitors
Answer :An organization has people with unique talents that are not available to its competitors
How do companies facilitate workforce diversity?
Options are :
- Rely on external support systems for minority workers.
- Encourage employees to challenge the beliefs and values of other employees.
- Build in accountability through surveys and audits.
(Correct)
- Reinforce traditional values.
Answer :Build in accountability through surveys and audits.
CAIIB 2020 Bank Financial Management Mock Tests Set 12
To be effective, human capital metrics must:
Options are :
- Provide the basis for action
(Correct)
- Be based on factual information
- Be trusted by users
- Be accurate
Answer :Provide the basis for action
How has technology changed HRM practices?
Options are :
- Recruiting using the web generates smaller, more focused applicant pools.
- Employee training is offered through scheduled classes rather than on-demand.
- Electronic resumes take less time to evaluate than paper resumes.
(Correct)
- None of the given options.
Answer :Electronic resumes take less time to evaluate than paper resumes.
Human resources are most likely to make a major contribution to achieving human capital advantage if they are:
Options are :
- Scarce
- Unique
- Irreplaceable
- All of the above
(Correct)
Answer :All of the above
CAIIB 2020 Retail Banking Mock Tests Set 4
Identify the topmost goal of human resource management?
Options are :
- Legal compliance
- Competitive edge
- Workforce adaptability
- Productivity
(Correct)
Answer :Productivity
Which of these is a major dimension of HRM practices contributing to company competitiveness?
Options are :
- Compensating human resources
- Acquiring and preparing human resources
- Managing the human resource environment
- All of the given options
(Correct)
Answer :All of the given options