Mock : CompTIA Network+ (N10-007)

Johnny installed an SFTP server behind a load-balancing router. He opened port 21 but was unable to establish a connection. What port should he have opened?

Options are :

  • Port 443
  • Port 162
  • Port 22
  • Port 20

Answer : Port 22

Explanation FTP works off of 20/21 but it is known to be unsecure. Port 22 is SSH which can be added to a secure telnet. Port 443 is HTTPS and port 162 is SNMP.

What network device uses ACLs to prevent unauthorized access into company systems?

Options are :

  • Firewall
  • Load balancer
  • IDS
  • Content filter

Answer : Firewall

Explanation A firewall is a network security device which is designed to prevent systems or traffic from unauthorized access. An ACL is a list that shows which traffic or devices should be allowed into or denied from accessing the network.

220-801 CompTIA A+ Certification Practice Exam Set 1

A home user is pairing a bluetooth gaming controller with their video game console. What type of network is implemented between the console and the controller?

Options are :

  • PAN
  • MAN
  • LAN
  • WAN

Answer : PAN

Explanation PAN is short for Personal Area Network. Personal area networks generally cover a range of a few centimeters up to around 10 meters (33 feet). Bluetooth, Infrared, or USB connections usually form a PAN.

A technician is troubleshooting a PC that is having intermittent connectivity issues. The technician notices that the STP cables pairs are not completely twisted near the connector. What might be the issue?

Options are :

  • 568A/568B mismatch
  • Cross-talk
  • Split Pairs
  • Tx/Rx reverse

Answer : Cross-talk

Explanation Cross-talk can occur if the twisted pairs are not twisted sufficiently. The cable should be trimmed down and reterminated to prevent this issue.

A network engineer has been tasked with designing a network for a new branch office with approximately 50 network devices. This branch office will connect to the other offices via a MAN. Many of the other branch offices use off-the-shelf SOHO equipment. It is a requirement that the routing protocol chosen use the least amount of overhead. Additionally, all computers on the network will be part of a single VLAN. The connection between these computers should produce the highest throughput possible in the most cost effective manner. What devices would be MOST appropriate? 

Options are :

  • A router should be used as a gateway device, with OSPF as the routing protocol. The computers should be connected to one another using a Gigabit Layer 3 switch.
  • A router should be used as a gateway device, with RIPv2 as the routing protocol. The computers should be connected to one another with a Gigabit Layer 2 switch.
  • A router should be used as a gateway device, with EIGRP as the routing protocol. The computers should be connected to one another using a single 802.11N MIMO access point.
  • A UTM should be used as a gateway device, with BGP as the routing protocol. The computers should be connected to one another using 1Gb Fibre Channel.

Answer : A router should be used as a gateway device, with RIPv2 as the routing protocol. The computers should be connected to one another with a Gigabit Layer 2 switch.

Explanation A Gigabit Layer 2 switch is the cheapest switching solution offering 1Gbps network connectivity between the computers. RIPv2 has a lower overhead as set forth in the requirements.

CompTIA CySA+ Set 3

What port is used to provide secure sessions over the Internet?

Options are :

  • 22
  • 25
  • 5004
  • 80

Answer : 22

Explanation Port 22 is used by Secure Shell (SSH) to securely create communication sessions over the Internet for remote access to a server or system.

A NAC service has discovered a virus on a client laptop. What location should the NAC service put the laptop?

Options are :

  • On the honeypot
  • On the quarantine network
  • On the sandbox network
  • On the DMZ network

Answer : On the quarantine network

Explanation Network Access Control (NAC) is an approach to computer security that attempts to unify endpoint security technology (such as antivirus, host intrusion prevention, and vulnerability assessment), user or system authentication, and network security enforcement. When NAC detects an issue with a client, it places them in a quarantine network.

A company is experiencing very slow network speeds of 54Mbps. A technician has been hired to perform an assessment on the existing wireless network. The technician has recommended an 802.11n network infrastructure. What allows 802.11n to reach higher speeds?

Options are :

  • MIMO
  • PoE

Answer : MIMO

Explanation One way 802.11n achieves superior throughput is through the use of a technology called multiple input, multiple output (MIMO). MIMO uses multiple antennas for transmission and reception.

CompTIA JK0-801 A+ Certification Practical Exam Set 3

What is considered a classless routing protocol?

Options are :

  • IGRP
  • STP
  • RIPv1
  • IS-IS

Answer : IS-IS

Explanation IS-IS is known as a classless protocol. Classless routing protocols are those protocols that include the subnet mask information when the routing tables or updates are exchanged.

Policies, procedures, and end-user training are effective ways to mitigate:

Options are :

  • Man-in-the-middle attacks
  • Zero-day attacks
  • Attempted DDoS attacks
  • Social engineering attempts

Answer : Social engineering attempts

Explanation Social engineering attempts occur when someone uses something like: phishing (they are attempting to receive your personal information and look legitimate), pretexting (basically they give you a scenario and expect you to react quickly), tailgating (following too closely into a door they aren’t allowed in), and many other situations. Educating your users on the dangers posed by social engineering could prevent them from becoming a victim of a phishing attack, as well as many other attacks.

What is an example of a UC application?

Options are :

  • Intranet
  • Facsimile
  • Proxy
  • Softphone

Answer : Softphone

Explanation Unified Communications is a term used to describe the integration of numerous communication technologies, including VoIP. A softphone uses VoIP technology.

220-702 CompTIA A+ Practical Application Certification Exam Set 4

What port(s) does SIP use?

Options are :

  • 1720
  • 5060/5061
  • 443
  • 2427/27/27

Answer : 5060/5061

Explanation SIP works with other protocols over 5060/5061. 443 is HTTPS, 2427 deals with TCP/UDP (wireshark), and ports 5004/5005 is RTP (real time transport).

What protocol is considered a hybrid routing protocol?

Options are :

  • OSPF
  • RIPv2
  • BGP

Answer : EIGRP

Explanation Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is considered as a Hybrid Routing Protocol because EIGRP has characteristics of both Distance Vector and Link State Routing Protocols. EIGRP doesn’t send Link State Advertisement (LSA) packets as Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) does. EIGRP sends traditional Distance Vector updates containing information about networks plus the cost of reaching them from the perspective of the advertising router. EIGRP also has Link State characteristics. EIGRP synchronizes routing tables between neighbors at startup, and then it sends specific updates when a network topology change happens.

An additional network segment is urgently needed for QA testing on the external network. A software release could be impacted if this change is not immediate. The request come directly from management, and there is no time to go through the emergency change management process. What should the technician do?

Options are :

  • Send out a notification to the company about the change
  • Make the change, document the requester, and document all network changes
  • Wait until the maintenance window and make the requested change
  • First document the potential impacts and procedures related to the change

Answer : Make the change, document the requester, and document all network changes

Explanation While this is a difficult situation, the best answer is to make the change, document the requester, and document all the network changes. Since the request came directly from management, if they have sufficient authority to authorize the change, it can be performed outside of the emergency change control process. This should be a RARE occurrence.

CompTIA JK0-017 E2C Project+ Certification Practice Exam Set 10

A project manager is tasked with the planning of a new network installation. The customer requires that everything discussed in the meetings will be installed and configured when a network engineer arrives onsite. What should the project manager provide the customer?

Options are :

  • Acceptable Use Policy
  • Security Policy
  • Service Level Agreement
  • Statement of Work

Answer : Statement of Work

Explanation A Statement of work (SOW) is a document that outlines all the work that is to be performed, as well as the agreed-upon deliverables and timelines.

What is an example of a signaling protocol used in VoIP telephony?

Options are :

  • SIP
  • RTSP
  • VRRP
  • H 323

Answer : SIP

Explanation Process of elimination: VRRP is the (virtual router redundancy protocol) that automatically assigns IP routers to hosts, H 323 is something that works with A/V (audio visual), RTSP is a real time streaming protocol designed to control media servers, and SIP is a session initiation protocol. SIP is a signaling protocol used on the application layer.

A company is having a new T1 line installed. What device does this connection MOST likely terminate to?

Options are :

  • Core switch
  • IDF
  • Ethernet router
  • MDF

Answer : MDF

Explanation The telecom company usually terminates the circuits at the Main Distribution Facility (MDF).

FC0-U51 CompTIA IT Fundamentals Certification Exam Set 3

A network technician needs to install a server to authenticate remote users before they have access to corporate network resources when working from home. What kind of server should the network technician implement?

Options are :

  • VLAN
  • PPP
  • NAT
  • RAS

Answer : RAS

Explanation A remote access server is a type of server that provides a suite of services to remotely connect users to a network or the Internet.

An administrator has a physical server with a single NIC. The administrator intends to deploy two virtual machines onto the single physical server. Each virtual machine needs two NICs, one that connects to the network, and a second that is a server to server heartbeat connection between the two virtual machines. After deploying the virtual machines, what should the administrator do to meet the requirements?

Options are :

  • The administrator should create a virtual switch for each guest; each switch should be configured for inter-switch links and the primary NIC should have a NAT to the corporate network
  • The administrator should create a virtual switch to bridge all of the connections to the network; the virtual heartbeat NICs should be set to addresses in an unused range
  • The administrator should create a virtual switch that is bridged to the corporate network, and a second virtual switch that carries intra-VM communication only
  • The administrator should install a second physical NIC onto the host, and then connect each guest machine's NICs to a dedicated physical NIC

Answer : The administrator should create a virtual switch to bridge all of the connections to the network; the virtual heartbeat NICs should be set to addresses in an unused range

Explanation By bridging all of the connections to the network, it allows for faster communication between the virtual machines (hosts). The heartbeat is set on unused address range in order to ensure there is no chance of data collision or loss of signal.

A technician needs to limit the amount of broadcast traffic on a network and allow different segments to communicate with each other. What would satisfy these requirements?

Options are :

  • Add a bridge between two switches
  • Add a router and enable OSFP
  • Add a firewall and implement proper ACL
  • Add a layer 3 switch and create a VLAN

Answer : Add a layer 3 switch and create a VLAN

Explanation By adding a layer 3 switch to improve network routing performance and reducing broadcast traffic, a VLAN provides LAN segmentation within a network.

220-902 CompTIA A+ Certification Practice Exam Set 3

What describes the ID of a specified native VLAN when traffic passes over a trunk?

Options are :

  • It becomes the default gateway for the port or ports
  • It becomes the gateway of last resort for the switch or router
  • It becomes the default VLAN for the untagged frames
  • It becomes the priority ID for all the VLAN traffic across the device

Answer : It becomes the default VLAN for the untagged frames

Explanation Trunk ports carry all traffic, regardless of VLAN number, between all switches in a LAN. The VLAN designation for a trunk port is its native VLAN. If the trunk port has a native VLAN that differs from the tag placed on the frame as it entered the access port, the switch leaves the tag on the frame and sends the tagged frame along to the next switch or switches. If the trunk port’s native VLAN is the same as the access ports VLAN, then the switch drops the tag and sends the untagged frame out the trunk port.

An administrator reassigns a laptop to a different user in the company. Upon delivering the laptop to the new user, the administrator documents the new location, the user of the device, and when the device was reassigned. What BEST describes these actions?

Options are :

  • Network map
  • Baselines
  • Asset management
  • Change management

Answer : Asset management

Explanation Documenting the location, the user of the device, and the date of the reassignment would be part of the asset management.

A user has a network device that streams media to the local network, and the device is visible on the network. All PCs on the LAN can ping the device and all the firewalls are turned off. The streaming device appears to be functioning properly, but the media won't stream when requested. What TCP/IP technology is not being implemented?

Options are :

  • Multicast
  • Broadcasts
  • Anycast
  • Unicast

Answer : Multicast

Explanation Multicast is not implemented properly because that is the TCP/IP technology that sends out packets to the requested devices. As opposed to broadcast (one-to-all), which sends out packets to all devices, multicast (one-to-many-of-many/many-to-many-of-many) only sends packets to many that are specifically requested but not all. Multicast would need to be implemented to route the network device to the LAN so that streaming can function properly.

CompTIA 220-801 A+ Advanced Certification Practice Exam Set 2

When two or more links need to pass traffic as if they were one physical link, what could be used to satisfy the requirement?

Options are :

  • LACP
  • 802.1w
  • VTP
  • Port mirroring

Answer : LACP

Explanation The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) enables you to assign multiple physical links to a logical interface that will appear as a single link to a route processor.

What describes an IPv6 address of ::1?

Options are :

  • Broadcast
  • Multicast
  • Loopback
  • Classless

Answer : Loopback

Explanation Loopback is a test signal sent to a network destination in order to diagnose problems.

A network administrator is assigned an approved change request with a change window of 120 minutes. After 90 minutes, the change is stuck on step five of a five-step change. The network manager decides to initiate a rollback. Which describes what the network administrator should do next?

Options are :

  • Leave the change as is and inform users of a workaround
  • Return the system back to the original state before the change.
  • Request additional time since the change is near completion
  • Return the system to step four since this was the last working step.

Answer : Return the system back to the original state before the change.

Explanation By performing a rollback, the administrator will change everything back to the last known good configuration, to the time prior to the change.

CompTIA CySA+ Set 3

A technician installs three new switches to a company’s infrastructure. The network technician notices that all the switch port lights at the front of each switch flash rapidly when powered on and connected. Additionally, there are rapidly flashing amber lights on the switches when they started up the next day. What is happening to the switches?

Options are :

  • The switches are connected and detected a spanning tree loop
  • The switches are not functioning properly and need to be disconnected
  • The switches are having problems communicating with each other
  • The switches are running through their spanning tree process

Answer : The switches are running through their spanning tree process

Explanation The switches use the spanning tree process to ensure no routing loops will occur.

QoS operates at which of the following OSI model layers?

Options are :

  • Layer 1
  • Layer 5
  • Layer 2
  • Layer 4

Answer : Layer 2

Explanation Quality of Service (QoS) for networks is an industry-wide set of standards and mechanisms for ensuring high-quality performance for critical applications. The data link layer (layer 2) is an example of one of the layers that's important for high-quality performance. Another example is layer 3 (network layer), which would also affect the quality of performance.

A network technician is working on a large project involving the cabling of a new commercial building. The project involves working with a variety of toxic liquids, some of which require special handling. The technician wants to gain more insight into how items should be handled and stored, and what safety considerations must be made for each item being utilized in the project. What should the technician review to gather the information needed? 

Options are :

  • ESD warnings
  • FIPS
  • NIST publications
  • MSDS

Answer : MSDS

Explanation Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) lists the handling for chemicals used in an organization, as well as the first aid to perform if it is spilled.

NEW! CompTIA A+ 2019 Cert. Core 2 (220-1002) Practice Tests Set 6

A disgruntled employee executes a man-in-the-middle attack on the company network. Layer 2 traffic destined for the gateway is redirected to the employee’s computer. This type of attack is an example of:

Options are :

  • Amplified DNS attack
  • IP spoofing
  • ARP cache poisoning
  • Evil twin

Answer : ARP cache poisoning

Explanation ARP poisoning reroutes data and allows an attacker to intercept packets of data intended for another recipient. ARP attacks can be sent from any host on the local area network and the goal is to associate the host so that any traffic meant for something else will instead go directly to the attacker’s PC.

A technician has finished configuring AAA on a new network device. However, the technician is unable to log into the device with LDAP credentials but is able to do so with a local user account. What is the MOST likely reason for the problem?

Options are :

  • Shared secret key is mismatched
  • IDS is blocking RADIUS
  • Group policy has not propagated to the device
  • Username is misspelled in the device configuration file

Answer : Shared secret key is mismatched

Explanation AAA through RADIUS uses a Server Secret Key (a shared secret key). A secret key mismatch could cause login problems.

A firewall technician has received calls stating the network is running slowly. The technician has found the firewall is functioning properly. What should the technician review to determine the cause of the slow performance?

Options are :

  • Top talkers
  • Port scanner
  • Heat maps
  • SNMP traps

Answer : Top talkers

Explanation There are devices/applications usually unknown to the network administrators that use too much bandwidth, therefore slowing down the system. For example, if you have few users who are downloading large files all day long (like videos), they could be considered a "top talker".

BR0-003 CompTIA A+ 2009 Edition Bridge Practice Exam Set 4

A company that was previously running on a wired network is performing office-wide upgrades. A department with older desktop PCs that do not have wireless capabilities must be migrated to the new network, ensuring that all computers are operating on a single network. Assuming CAT 5e cables are available, what network device should the technician use to connect all the devices to the wireless network?

Options are :

  • Wireless router
  • Default WAP
  • VPN concentrator
  • Wireless bridge

Answer : Wireless router

Explanation Wireless bridge and WAP are both examples of wireless network extenders. They will not work without a wireless router. Also, a wireless router has physical Ethernet ports in order to connect the older desktop PCs using a NIC.

A small office has an Internet connection that drops out about two times per week. It often takes until the next day for the vendor to come out and fix the issue. What should the office implement to reduce this downtime?

Options are :

  • MOU
  • EULA
  • SLA
  • SOW

Answer : SLA

Explanation A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a service provider (either internal or external) and the end user that defines the level of service expected from the service provider. SLAs are output-based that their purpose is specifically to define what the customer will receive. If the customer requires faster response times, it should be in the SLA.

During a business trip, a user connects to the hotel’s wireless network to send emails to customers. The user notices the next day that emails have been sent from the user’s account without consent. What protocol was used to compromise the user’s email password utilizing a network sniffer?

Options are :

  • TFTP
  • HTTP
  • SSL
  • DNS

Answer : HTTP

Explanation HTTP is an unsecured protocol and information is passed without encryption. If the user signed into their webmail over HTTP instead of HTTPS, a network sniffer could compromise the username and password.

CompTIA JK0-015 E2C Security+ Certification Practice Test Set 21

A company needs to implement stronger authentication by adding an authentication factor to their wireless system. The wireless system only supports WPA with pre-shared keys, but the back-end authentication system supports EAP and TTLS. What should the network administrator implement?

Options are :

  • PKI with user authentication
  • MAC address filtering with IP filtering
  • 802.1x using EAP with MSCHAPv2
  • WPA2 with a complex shared key

Answer : 802.1x using EAP with MSCHAPv2

Explanation Since the back end uses a RADIUS server for back-end authentication, the network administrator can install 802.1x using EAP with MSCHAPv2 for authentication.

During a high-availability test of a system, a fiber interruption did not reroute traffic. This is an indication of what routing concept?

Options are :

  • Hybrid
  • Static
  • Routing loops
  • Dynamic

Answer : Static

Explanation Static routes must be configured and rerouted manually during an issue. Dynamic and Hybrid would reroute automatically.

What network element enables unified communication devices to connect to and traverse traffic onto the PSTN?

Options are :

  • UC gateway
  • Edge router
  • Access switch
  • UC server

Answer : UC gateway

Explanation Unified Communications (UC) enables people using different modes of communication, different media, and different devices to communicate with anyone, anywhere, at any time. To accomplish this, a UC gateway is needed.

CompTIA JK0-801 A+ Networking & PC Hardware Practice Exam Set 3

The administrator's network has OSPF for the internal routing protocol. One port going out to the Internet is congested. The data is going out to the Internet, but queues up before sending. What would resolve this issue?

Fast Ethernet 0 is up, line protocol is up
Int ip address is
MTU 1500 bytes, BW10000 kbit, DLY 100 usec
Reliability 255/255, Tx load 1/255, Rx load 1/255
Encapsulation ospf, loopback not set
Keep alive 10
Half duplex, 100Mb/s, 100 Base Tx/Fx
Received 1052993 broadcasts
0 input errors
983881 packets output, 768588 bytes
0 output errors, 0 collisions, 0 resets 

Options are :

  • Change duplex to full
  • Change the slash notation
  • Change the IP address
  • Set the loopback address

Answer : Change duplex to full

Explanation From the output, we see that the half-duplex is configured. This would not use the full capacity of ports on the network. By changing to full duplex, the throughput would be doubled.

A technician has terminated a cable on the datacenter with an RJ-11 connector. What application is MOST likely being used?

Options are :

  • Out-of-band management
  • Crossover patch cabling
  • VRRP interconnect link
  • Ethernet for a NAS appliance

Answer : Crossover patch cabling

Explanation The only one that it could possibly be is the crossover patch cabling, but even that doesn’t make much sense. This is a poor question, but you can use RJ-11 to carry Ethernet data (crossover or straight through) using 4 wires instead of 8, and support the same capabilities as regular CAT 5. This is a poor practice to do though.

Michael is a system administrator who is troubleshooting an issue with remotely accessing a new server on the local area network. He is using an LMHOST file, which contains the hostname and IP address of the new server. The server that he cannot remotely access to is located on the same LAN as another server that he can successfully remote to. What output from the command line would BEST resolve the issue? 

Options are :

  • C:\windows\system32> ipconfig /registerdns Windows IP configuration Registration of the DNS resource records for all adapters has been initiated. Any errors will be reported in the event viewer in 15 minutes.
  • C:\windows\system32> nslookup Default server: unknown Address:
  • C:\windows\system32> nbtstat –R Successful purge and reload of the NBT remote cache table
  • C:\windows\system32> ipconfig /flushdns Windows IP configuration Successfully flushed DNS resolver cache

Answer : C:\windows\system32> ipconfig /registerdns Windows IP configuration Registration of the DNS resource records for all adapters has been initiated. Any errors will be reported in the event viewer in 15 minutes.

Explanation Since he is using a local LMHOST file, it is bypassing the DNS of the machine, and flushing the DNS will not solve the problem. In this case, registering the DNS entries will fix the issue.

CompTIA Cloud Essentials Cert Exam Prep CL0-002 Set 4

What is the number of bits in 1024 bytes?

Options are :

  • 4096
  • 512
  • 8000
  • 8192

Answer : 8192

Explanation There are 8 bits in a byte. 8 x 1024 = 8192, therefore, 8192 bits are in 1024 bytes.

A technician is in a large room that contains a large amount of industrial equipment. The technician would like to record the usable bandwidth between devices in a wireless network and the access point. What should the technician be documenting?

Options are :

  • Latency
  • Jitter
  • EMI
  • Goodput

Answer : Goodput

Explanation Goodput is the rate at which useful data goes through a data link.

The human resource department has been moved to an area which is more than 60 meters away from the nearest IDF. In order to comply with a SLA which requires that 10Gb speeds be provided, what media will need to be utilized?

Options are :

  • CAT6a
  • 802.11n
  • CAT5e
  • 802.11ac

Answer : CAT6a

Explanation Cat6a is the only one listed that can meet 10 Gbps. CAT5e only obtains 1 Gbps and so does 802.11ac.

CompTIA Cyber Security Analyst (CySA+) Practice Exams 2019 Set 4

A network technician was tasked to install a network printer and share it to a group of five human resource employees. The technician plugged the device into a LAN jack, but was unable to obtain an IP address automatically. What is the cause of the problem?

Options are :

  • Split horizon
  • Wrong TCP port
  • DNS
  • DHCP scope

Answer : DHCP scope

Explanation The DHCP scope is used as a pool of IP addresses that can be assigned automatically. The issue might be that there are no more IP addresses left in the scope.

Susan is a network administrator who is in the process of preparing and cleaning network switches for resale. She splashes the cleaning agent in her eye and needs to know the procedure to do in order to cleanse her eye. Where should she look to find the right procedure?

Options are :

  • EULA
  • SLA
  • MSDS
  • MOU

Answer : MSDS

Explanation The Manufacturers Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) lists the chemical composition of the solution and states the relevant protocol for first aid treatment.

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