400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 5

Which of the following ports does TACACS+ use for AAA? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • TCP 49 (Correct)
  • TCP 1812
  • TCP 1813
  • UDP 1645
  • UDP 1646

Answer : TCP 49

400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 10

Which of the following PfR policies is used to configure performancebased load sharing across all links within a given utilization percentage? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • range policy (Correct)
  • utilization policy
  • cost policy
  • traffic load policy

Answer : range policy

You are configuring EEM on a router. You issue the event ioswdsysmon sub1 mem-proc taskname Task1 op ge val 30 is-percent true period 200 command. When will the event action be triggered for the Task1 process? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • when the memory usage decreases by 30 percent or more during a 200 millisecond period
  • when the processor usage increases by 30 percent or more during a 200 second period
  • when the processor usage decreases by 30 percent or more during a 200 millisecond period
  • when the memory usage increases by 30 percent or more during a 200 second period (Correct)

Answer : when the memory usage increases by 30 percent or more during a 200 second period

Which of the following OSPF area types do not generate a default summary route by default? (Select 2 choices.)

A. stub

B. totally stubby

C. NSSA

D. normal


Options are :

  • C,D (Correct)
  • B,C
  • A,B
  • D,A

Answer : C,D

400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 6

Which of the following statements are correct regarding NETCONF? (Select 2 choices.)

A. NETCONF is an opensource cloudcomputing platform.

B. NETCONF is a connectionless protocol.

C. NETCONF is a standardsbased protocol.

D. NETCONF uses XML as the data modeling language.

E. NETCONF uses YANG as the data modeling language.


Options are :

  • D.A
  • B,C
  • E,D
  • A,B
  • C,E (Correct)

Answer : C,E

Which of the following statements are true regarding VPLS? (Select 2 choices.)

A. The VPLS core uses splithorizon forwarding.

B. UPE devices are typically connected in a partialmesh topology.

C. A PW is a physical connection from a UPE device to a CE device.

D. MAC aging is required for convergence after the failure of an NPE router.

E. Each EMS in the VPLS network functions as a single broadcast domain.


Options are :

  • A,D
  • D,C
  • A,E (Correct)
  • B,C

Answer : A,E

In which of the following locations does BGP PIC store an alternate path? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • only in the RIB and the FIB
  • only in the RIB
  • in the RIB, in the FIB, and in CEF (Correct)
  • only in CEF
  • only in the FIB

Answer : in the RIB, in the FIB, and in CEF

400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 7

You administer a router that receives four routes to a destination network: an internal EIGRP route, an external EIGRP route, an OSPF route, and an internal BGP route. Which of the following statements is accurate? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • The OSPF route will be placed into the routing table.
  • A memory failure will occur.
  • All the routes will be placed into the routing table.
  • A RIB failure will occur. (Correct)
  • The internal BGP route will be placed into the routing table.

Answer : A RIB failure will occur.

Which of the following is most likely to cause a blackhole issue on a router running IS-IS? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • Adjacent routers have an additional route to the destination.
  • The router is offline.
  • Multiple routes to the same destination exist in the router.
  • The router has recently been reloaded, and the overload bit has not been set. (Correct)

Answer : The router has recently been reloaded, and the overload bit has not been set.

Which of the following OSPF areas does not accept Type 3, 4, and 5 summary LSAs? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • totally stubby area (Correct)
  • ordinary area
  • backbone area
  • stub area
  • notsostubby area

Answer : totally stubby area

400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 4

Which of the following are protocols that are used by the control plane? (Select 2 choices.)

A. SSH and Telnet

B. TDP and LDP

C. EIGRP and OSPF

D. HTTP, HTTPS, and SNMP

E. FIB and LFIB


Options are :

  • B,C (Correct)
  • D,A
  • C,D
  • E,A
  • B,E

Answer : B,C

Which of the following does a router consider when measuring a responder's processing time with IP SLA operations? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • responder processor speeds
  • ICMP one-way travel time from the responder to the transmitter
  • responder packet timestamps (Correct)
  • responder interface speeds
  • ICMP round-trip travel time
  • ICMP one-way travel time from the transmitter to the responder

Answer : responder packet timestamps

Which of the following statements are true regarding the graceful restart feature? (Select 2 choices.)

A. Graceful restart enables a router to continue to forward packets during a restart of the routing process.

B. Graceful restart works only with OSPF.

C. Graceful restart must be configured on all neighbor routers for the feature to work correctly.

D. Graceful restart is proprietary to Cisco.

E. Graceful restart uses softwarebased forwarding mechanisms.


Options are :

  • C,A
  • A,C (Correct)
  • D,A
  • E,D
  • B,C

Answer : A,C

400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 6

Which of the following commands effectively disables STP on a port? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • spanning-tree bpduguard enable
  • spanning-tree guard loop
  • spanning-tree portfast
  • spanning-tree bpdufilter enable (Correct)
  • spanning-tree guard root

Answer : spanning-tree bpdufilter enable

Which of the following benefits is provided by fog computing? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • It allows data to be transmitted to the cloud faster.
  • It ensures reliable connectivity to the cloud.
  • It filters data before it goes to the cloud. (Correct)
  • It allows more data to be stored in the cloud.

Answer : It filters data before it goes to the cloud.

Which of the following ports will be put into the errdisable state? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • a port configured with BPDU guard that starts receiving BPDUs (Correct)
  • a port configured with loop guard that starts receiving BPDUs
  • a port configured with BPDU guard that stops receiving BPDUs
  • a port configured with root guard that stops receiving BPDUs
  • a port configured with loop guard that stops receiving BPDUs
  • a port configured with root guard that starts receiving BPDUs

Answer : a port configured with BPDU guard that starts receiving BPDUs

400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 9

Which of the following is a characteristic of the BFD Echo function? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • It can decrease roundtrip jitter. (Correct)
  • It requires fewer packets for failure detection.
  • It supports more BFD sessions than Demand mode supports.
  • It can be enabled only with Asynchronous mode.

Answer : It can decrease roundtrip jitter.

Which of the following floods LSA information to all other routers on a multiaccess segment? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • all routers in an area
  • only the DR (Correct)
  • the DR and BDR
  • only the BDR

Answer : only the DR

Two switches are connected by an LACP EtherChannel bundle. Which criterion is considered first in order to determine which ports should become active? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • the system priority of each switch (Correct)
  • the port number of each switch port
  • the MAC address of each switch
  • the port priority of each switch port

Answer : the system priority of each switch

300-101 Implementing Cisco IP Routing (ROUTE) Practice Exam Set 3

In what order will a Rapid-PVST+ switch port pass through the port states? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • learning, discarding, forwarding
  • blocking, spanning, listening, forwarding
  • blocking, learning, listening, forwarding
  • discarding, learning, forwarding (Correct)
  • Ports enter the forwarding state immediately
  • blocking, listening, learning, forwarding

Answer : discarding, learning, forwarding

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of the network command with OSPFv3 and EIGRPv6? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • The network command is required with neither OSPFv3 nor EIGRPv6. (Correct)
  • The network command is required with both OSPFv3 and EIGRPv6.
  • The network command is required with OSPFv3 but is not required with EIGRPv6.
  • The network command is required with EIGRPv6 but is not required with OSPFv3.

Answer : The network command is required with neither OSPFv3 nor EIGRPv6.

Which of the following terms refers to a method that is used to pass IPv6 traffic over an IPv4-only network? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • 4to6 tunneling
  • NAT64
  • 6to4 tunneling (Correct)
  • dual stacks

Answer : 6to4 tunneling

400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 9

You issue the following commands on a router:

line console 0

exec-timeout 1 30

How long will the console session to the router remain established without input before the session

is automatically disconnected? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • 60 minutes
  • 30 seconds
  • 90 minutes
  • 90 seconds (Correct)
  • 60 seconds
  • 30 minutes

Answer : 90 seconds

Which of the following best describes feasible distance? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • the total metric along a path to a destination
  • a reported distance lower than the current best path
  • the best metric along a path to a destination (Correct)
  • the highest metric along a path to a destination

Answer : the best metric along a path to a destination

Which of the following steps in the NAT order of operations always occur before address translation? (Select 2 choices.)

A. check input access list

B. check output access list

C. decryption

D. encryption

E. inspect CBAC

F. policy routing

G. routing


Options are :

  • E,A
  • B,G
  • C,B
  • E,C
  • A,C (Correct)
  • G,D
  • D,E

Answer : A,C

400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 6

Which of the following statements are true regarding traffic shaping and traffic policing? (Select 2 choices.)

A. Traffic shaping can be used on only inbound traffic.

B. Traffic shaping can be used on only outbound traffic.

C. Traffic shaping can be used on both inbound and outbound traffic.

D. Traffic policing can be used on only inbound traffic.

E. Traffic policing can be used on only outbound traffic.

F. Traffic policing can be used on both inbound and outbound traffic.


Options are :

  • D,B
  • B,C
  • B,F (Correct)
  • A,C
  • F,D
  • A,E

Answer : B,F

You want to move several company functions to the cloud, including software development and CRM. You decide to use a PaaS provider. Which of the following will you most likely have to provide and manage? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • the operating system
  • the networking infrastructure
  • the computing and storage resources
  • the software development platform
  • the CRM application (Correct)

Answer : the CRM application

Which of the following should be considered first when MLP bundle names are created on a network where multiple clients might use the same user name? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • caller ID
  • endpoint discriminator (Correct)
  • user name
  • password
  • MAC address

Answer : endpoint discriminator

400-101 CCIE Routing and Switching Written Practice Exam Set 7

Which nodes are available in a two-node OpenStack architecture? (Select 2 choices.)

A. the compute node

B. the controller node

C. the network node

D. the server node


Options are :

  • B,D
  • C,A
  • A,B (Correct)
  • D,C

Answer : A,B

Which of the following IPv6 prefixes is used for multicast addresses? (Select the best answer.)


Options are :

  • FC00::/8
  • FE80::/10
  • FD00::/8
  • 2000::/3
  • ::FFFF:0:0/96
  • FF00::/8 (Correct)

Answer : FF00::/8

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